Where to begin?
Your premise that we are causing our own sorrows by our military and cultural extensions int the rest of the world begs a huge questions. IF this were true, how then do you explain the hundred of years of Muslim attack against western culture and civilization? How can this explain Suleimon's presence at the gates of Vienna in the 13th century, or the muslim conquest of most of Spain that ended in the 15th century? Can we minimize these and hundreds of other events simply by ascribing them to just some form of fundamentalism - another term used to minimize anyone with a religious point of view, BTW, or the opinions of a few?
If you've read the Koran and seen the suras that state quite clearly - more than 2 dozen times in fact - that it is good to kill non-believers, you will begin to understand that it is not fundamentalism, or the few, it is part of the essence of the religion. Domination is the goal, the so-called world caliphate based on reason if possible, but death and destruction is perfectly acceptable too.
Your point has minor validity in that many, if not most, of the people we face (based on the ones we kill or capture) are not native Iraqis, but foreigners who have been smuggled into Iraq through Iran and Syria bent on killing the "infidel". Our presence in Iraq is drawing them into the fight. But that simple fact cannot be extended to cover the fourteen hundred years in which the world's civilizations have been faced with Muslim attacks.
In this you, and to the degree I have read his stuff, Ron Paul are at best dangerously naive.
Pathfinder - I appreciate your viewpoint, but I would like to explain the story you cite above and what it tells me. You cite several incidents to try and prove that muslims have been terrorizing the world for 1400 years - but when you look back at the history of Islam, the initial (till about 1000 AD) push of Islam was more of a land grab (because in those days, land was money and power) than a forced conversion and subversion. There are records of Christian and Jew communities existing within the Muslim Arab empire - and in some cases finding less restrictions than under Byzantine rule. Rather than force conversion, early Islam instead imposed a head tax on those who were not Muslim, and rather than convert by force, those in power in Christian regions converted mainly to free themselves from taxation and to gain favor with the Muslim state (if you will) which would let them keep more of their individual power.
So tell me, if Islam is a religion that is so intolerant of non-Muslims, why less than a hundred years after after Mohammed's death did the expanding Arab empires not lay waste to all Christians and Jews? Why in fact, were there laws against conversion (not just forced conversion, but conversion at all!) in those periods? If this is the time of the most purity in message, why was everything so non-violent?
The expansion of empires of that era was about land and power not the supremacy of a religion or a people. Before Mohammed, the Persians were advancing the empire - The Romans were fighting to increase their empire - and it was all about land, and the ability to TAX (money).
You reference the gates of Vienna - which was a land grab by the Ottoman empire under Suleiman not a holy war of conversion. (matter of fact, some argue that Suleiman saw Alexander the Great as a hero, and wanted from childhood to unit the East and West)
Forgive me for ending here, I need to get to work. If you would like be basis for my arguments, please reference:
Wikipedia: Muslim History, Byzantine Empire, Islamic Forced Conversion, Spread of Islam, Islamic Conquest of Persia, Suleiman the Magnificent, Ottoman Empire, and Siege of Vienna.
In writing this I have spent over three hours researching the alleged tyranny of Islam over other religions. If you wish to cite that the Qur'an states that it is good to kill non-believers (and I agree that it does
http://www.sullivan-county.com/x/sina.htm - why don't they on a grand scale? Why didn't the Ottoman Empire lay waste to all Christians? Why didn't the Islamics murder the Persians? (indeed, this battle was waging while Mohammed was alive!)
My point is that in my and many historians opinion, your allegation that islamic fundamentalism was to blame in Spain and the Gates of Vienna is untrue. Also, while the Qur'an does say the things you allege - that doesn't mean that it is or was the justification used in those assaults. They along with just about every other invasion or subversion or siege was for military (border security) political, or money reasons. Just like they are today.